mayukh@2014 06 November 2019
Sb Karma 06 November 2019
Originally posted by : mayukh@2014 | ||
I have an inhwritted freehold property and sole owner as per gift deed. It is clearly mentioned in the deed that i have the right to use and sell it. In that case, law of easement can be applicable if i want to sell the property without intimating the owner of my adjacent property. The owner of that adjacent property is also an owner by inherittence and not residing in that place on regular basis since last 5 years. |
Yes,because you are legal holder of propert and you know that----
An easement is a legal right to use another's land for a specific limited purpose. In other words, when someone is granted an easement, he is granted the legal right to use the property, but the legal title to the land itself remains with the owner of the land.
mayukh@2014 06 November 2019
Sb Karma 06 November 2019
Originally posted by : mayukh@2014 | ||
Your reply is not clarified, plz inform whether i am liable to inform the owner of adjacent property before selling it. |
Not cleared because you have not mention all clause made in deed,so its not possible to say just online by simple 1 line.
You need to visit local lawyers who will follow-up with these deed details,untill unless it's property matter always incomplete without deed clause.
So suggest you to go to local lawyers.