Hi,
can anyone give me logic behind this concept.
able-bodied husband is required to maintain the wife and is held to be a man having sufficient means, but at the same time an educated woman who is unable to obtain employment, is held to be a woman unable to maintain herself.
(Ghurava Bai vs Vishnuram on 20 September, 2001)
My wife is more educated than me and was working before marriage. i know the employer name can i think they can be issued summons for evidence/witness. she is doing M com right now. why there is inequality in law
