Hi,
I reside in a housing society with 400+ apartments. We plan to conduct owners association election. Here our byelaws of the society says the voting rights for owner as one vote for one flat ie., if a same person owns 5 flats he has 5 votes.
In our case, the landowner having JV with Builder under a JDA. He has taken possession of his 70 flats and rented out as guest house for a manufacturing company for the stay of their employees.
Now he claims that he should get 70 votes as per bye law. Those flats are under the landowner possession based on JDA, the units are not registered in Sub Registrar office (SRO) in his name.
What is the eligibility of land owner in this case? 1 vote or 70 votes. Kindly suggest with law points
Rajaprasad V
Advocate