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(Guest)

Whether the property is self acquired or ancestral? please read 2 small facts

Two queries related to Property inheritance -
1) Whether property is in name of Grandfather by selling ancestral property , considered to be his Self-acquired property or not ?
2) Whether his daughters also have share in that property when he himself died in 1999 ? and after which , both his son's are jointly living on it and daughters never demanded any share and are married since 20 years.


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 4 Replies

g isaac (Lawyer)     21 August 2019

1.If it was bought afresh by selling the ancestral property it is supposed to have the self earned property.2. The daughters and sons are entitled equal shares in the property of the father


(Guest)
To your replies , 1) It was bought from the money that was received selling the old property, only the new property registry was in grandfather's name, he did not buy it from his own earned money 2) Grandfather died in 1999 before 2005, so would the daughters still have right in that property ? and what about the fact that only his sons are living jointly on that property, do would it not fall in the pool of ancestral property enjoyed jointly ?

kavksatyanarayana (subregistrar/supdt.(retired))     21 August 2019

Ji, to me, grandfather sold the property and bought another on his name.  so it is his own property.  Grandfather's children (including married daughters) and wife (if alive) have equal rights over the property. 


(Guest)
The property sold was not his own earned property, that was ancestral and from that money this property was bought to which he registered in his name.
Second, he died in1999 itself,.
Was is the share status as per these facts now ?

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