Hi,
My father had purchased a flat in kandivli in flat 2001 vide an agreement to sale which is unregistered.
However later on via a deed of transfer between the seller and my father was done which is duly stamped and registered in accordance with law. The same metions that the transferor (Seller) hereby sell, transfer, convey and assign their right title and interest in the said premises in favour of my father.
We are in possession of the property and hold all the previous title documents which are registered and the transfer of shares by the society has happened in my fathers name
Do we still require the agreement for sale to be registered? is my dad in possession of a valid, marketable and enforceable legal title.
Thanks in advance for the replies