Dear Sir,
Some of my clients have earned commission income from network marketing.
Thay had to return money to their downlines as none of the downline was working and they were bound to repay the money to the downline.
Now the question is that whether they can claim money returned to the downlines as business expenses.
Kinldy clarify the matter with some citations if possible.
Thanking You,
Truly Yours,
L C Dulhani
there is provision in UP VAT to submit form no.38 within 24 hrs. now my question is that if i hv brought many parcels in one form and i wanna take only a part of consighnment from transport whats the procedure regarding same
thanx
arun shah
sirs,
a person has been representing himself as a court staff , by sitting in front of court varanta, on a chair provided for stamp vender and misleads the innocent clients and collects huge amounts as fine to be paid in petty cases, cavasses cases for some his favourite lawyers and collects commissions.
whether it amounts to touting ?
if so, to whom i have to file complaint ?
we have alredy filed complaint before district judge,cjm etc but of no use.
he claims to be an advocate clark some times.
a leading news paper has also published a news about him.
whether i should complaint to bar council .
pls advice
Police often use Dog to track culprits, is such evidence admissible?
if a complaint is made against a police officer, should the magistrate send the complaint to the police for enquiry under section 202 Cr.P.C?
Could you please let me know on your view applicability of withholding tax on following transaction:
Payment of guarantee issuance charges by branch in India to HO in France .
Payment of fees for arrangement for ECB by branch in India to HO in France
Whether this payment could be considered as FTS and tax @ 10% should be withheld as per India France tax treaty.
pls help me
Surcharge is complusory for the fbt even though the compnay is not exceeding the gross income 1crore
thanks
Article 14 and 15(1) speak about equality of sexes, but under section 13 (2 ) (ii) of the Hindu Law says that the wife may present divorce petition if the husband commits Rape,Sodomy or Bestality: This provisions is a clear violations of the Constitution and should be struck down as unconstitutional. Rape, Sodomy or Bestality are committed by women in the form of Lesbianism and other horrific sexual acts can be committed by women also, so why should the law target only men?
India is a secular State as we all know. If so,that section 13 and 13A of the Hindu marriage act of 1955, is a direct conflicts with Caste Disabilities Removal Act of 1850. As the 1850 is not confined to propriety rights alone but all other personal or non propriety rights including conjugal rights also. therefore disruption of the matrimonial rights of any spouse on the ground of religion only is unreasonable.
Moreover,if the converted spouse is committed to the matrimonial obligations despite conversion is it a ground for divorce? If so, its a bad law.
private equity
can any one please tell me what does private equity mean