please answer urgently

khaleel (Querist) 25 February 2009 This query is : Resolved
hi sir iam a muslim of hyderabad /andhrapradesh. sir my father has purshased a independent house of nearly 100 yards which is beside the house of ours only i.e(of my grand fathers)5 years back at a cost which is prevailing at that time from the sellers i.e the sellers are also are the cousin brothers of my father . and now they want to go to court saying that they have sold the house at very low cost and they want the compensation now ?but we have purchased it at a cost which is prevailing at that time and now due to the rise in the real estate the value of land has increased sir? at the time of sale my father had enterted in the the sale dead with them and GOT attested by the lawyer.and my father had also made NO-TARY.BUT THE DIDNT REGISTERED THE LAND DUE TO NON AVAIBILITY OF MONEY AT THAT TIME what remeady can my father get if they went to court sir? and please suggest us what actions we shall take to safe guard the property sir?THANKS IN ADVANCE SIR PLS DO THE NEED FUL.

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Jithendra.H.J (Expert) 25 February 2009
unregistered sale deed does not convey any title over the property......

Abhishek (Expert) 26 February 2009
hmm...Mr. Jithendra is ryt..

Manish Singh (Expert) 26 February 2009
Dont worry. even unregistered sale deed i s a good evidence to claim your title. the purchaser's title shall not be tampered with if the purchaser bonafidely beleived that the title of the sellor was perfect. just dont worry and contest the case.