Thanks again and my sincere appreciation. i tried to reply in the forum it self but it is asking for a verification code which is not displayed anywhere on the screen., hence this new post kindly bear with me.,,
Yes , true its not possible without the presence and signature of both parties; but is it so that only when both parties have signed the original sale deed both of them need to sign the "deed of rectification" also; and is it so otherwise that if the original deed was signed only by the executant then in that case the executant him self can unilaterally sign the "deed of rectification" and present it for registration to the sub-registrar with payment of requisite stamp duty and the claimant need not even be informed leave alone his presence.,
But , this has happened it has recently come to light and one wonders as to how a sub-registrar at chennai has accepted the "rectification deed" for registration a) in the absence of claimant and b) the schedule has been tampered with i.e to say that the area itself has been changed; c) after 11 years of its actual conveyance of property that the executant realises that there is a typing error in the extent of land and it is only 4 cents instead of 25 cents which was actually sold and the sub-registrar accepts it and registers it, and it also reflects in the encumbrance certificate.,
Now what is the solution? how to make it null and void this illegal "deed of rectification", if it is really so under above circumstances,
do we have to approach the civil court? (which will take a long time)
or do we have to approach the inspector general of registration and represent? what are the other options available???
can you please enlighten.
with kind regards
