I have an interesting issue and i am confused as to what should be done.
I am buying a top floor flat with terrace above it. (Buying it in 3rd sale)
1. Builder to 1st owner sale deed does not mention any reference of above terrace. (Instead a point says that 1st owner would not be allowed to use top terrace)
2. 1st owner to 2nd owner sale deed has a clause that "2nd owner has exclusive rights to use top terrace" (index -2 mentions only carpet area & parking)
I will be 3rd owner and paying the price for flat+parking+top terrace. I am strongly beliving that legally top terrace is not mine.
What should i do in this case ? Will builder challenge the top terrace in future ? Should i go fwd with the deal ?