A girl marries a impotent man due to some circumstances, the man give only a verbal consent to the girl and give a sworn statement of separation, but no divorce. after two years of living separately the girl marries a boy of her choice and also informs the huband of her marriage, later the previous one files a x party divorce after one year.
my question is which marriage is a valid one? if the wife challenges the first marriage voidable under impotency or if the first husband challenges wife of adultery and marrying when spouse is alive.
the first marriage of the impotent one not a registered one but done at home before few relatives
