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milind parab   02 January 2025

1 of chain agreement is unregistred

Hi Law Gurus,

I had bought a property which was available for resale in Mumbai suburbs, in 2024 from an 3rd Owner. but 1st & 2nd agreement of Sale was not registed.  First Agreement was made between developer/builder to 1st owner in year 1972 than the 2nd agreement is made between 1st owner and 2nd owner in 1978 and the last registred agreement is made in 2001 between 2nd owner to 3rd owner. Now I've purchased it from 3rd owner and me which is registred in January 2024  Do I wait for Amensty Scheme. What else should I do to make the title of the property clear so that it is saleable in the future?



Learning

 12 Replies

ekta mahyavanshi   02 January 2025

In case of agreements executed in 1971 and 1972 are unregistered, check whether the stamp duty is paid or not.  The stamps and amounts paid as a stamp duty must be available. Further, since it's been more than 30 years from the date of execution and if no claim is raised till now, then no party can raise any claim under those agareement as the same is barred by law of limitation. 

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milind parab   02 January 2025

Originally posted by : ekta mahyavanshi
In case of agreements executed in 1971 and 1972 are unregistered, check whether the stamp duty is paid or not.  The stamps and amounts paid as a stamp duty must be available. Further, since it's been more than 30 years from the date of execution and if no claim is raised till now, then no party can raise any claim under those agareement as the same is barred by law of limitation. 

Yes. Stamp duty was paid. But I don't know if it's sufficient or not. As agreement was made on 500/- Stamp paper which was noterised there on.

ekta mahyavanshi   02 January 2025

Pls check whether the 3rd agreement duly registered? And are the previous unregistered agreements were annexed/attached to that registered agreement.... If the previous unregistered agreements were adjudicated at the time of 3rd agreement registration then there is no problem, if not then adjudication is required. 

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T. Kalaiselvan, Advocate (Advocate)     02 January 2025

First of all an immovable property cannot be transferred by the seller in favor of the buyer by a sale agreement, it should be on a sale deed alone.

Next thing that the there was no registered document from the beginning hence the person who sold ealrlier was not having clear and marketable title to sell the property because it was a defective title as the presumed sale deed was executed by an unregistered sale deed. 

You may hae to wait and watch for any adverse developent at a later stage,.

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Dr. J C Vashista (Advocate )     03 January 2025

Please be clear there is no transfer of title (ownership) through agreement to sell, whether registered or unregistered.

Agreement to sell stated to have started in the year 1971, there is no legality of such agreement since it cannot be perpetual.

Contact, consult and engage a local prudent lawyer for proper appreciation of facts/ documents and professional advise.

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ekta mahyavanshi   03 January 2025

Agree sir, but here in Mumbai I have seen that builders execute agreement for sale only, I am not sure what is the practice in other parts of India. Have handled one transaction in Delhi they prefer sale deed. 

I guess the reason to execute AFS instead of sale deed is that at the time of execution the transction could not be complete as the property is under construction and payment is also done in installements. 

AFS under MOFA or RERA if registered is treated as an valid instrument to transfer the property. 

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T. Kalaiselvan, Advocate (Advocate)     03 January 2025

The literal meaning of agreement for sale is that the buyer proposes to buy the property from the owner and has entered into an agreement to this effect.

Please be aware that the agreement for sale will not confer title to the buyer by any means, it is a law applicable to the entire country and Mumbai is not exempted from this law.

Hence do not express your own view about a non existing law by your misconception.

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milind parab   03 January 2025

yes, all old unregistered agreements was adjudicated with the 3rd agreement duly paid stamp duty & registration as per ready reconor rates. Thank you for updating me. But now I'm just worried if Agreement for Sale is sufficient for this or I need to register a Sales Deed along with this agreement as some lowyers here are insist on Sales Deed.

ekta mahyavanshi   03 January 2025

I believe after all the transactions respective purchaser have obtained possession and were in possession of the property. 

I am in suburb only, can guide you in detail. 

Please fill free to reach out at enmahyavanshi@gmail.com.

 

 

 

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P. Venu (Advocate)     04 January 2025

"I had bought a property". What is the nature of the property? Is it a flat within a Housing Cooperative Society?


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milind parab   04 January 2025

Yes sir, it's a residencial flat

P. Venu (Advocate)     04 January 2025

To my knowledge, prior to 1990, different norms and concept governed transfer of flats within a CHS.  It appears the transfer of flat was carried out through transfer of membership in the CHS together with an agreement for sale.

LCI Member Dr. Ramani is informed of the matter and,  I trust, he will join the discussion and provide his valuable inputs.

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