Hi everyone,
the question I want to discuss out here is that -- when there was Sales Tax in place of VAT the normal practise by the traders were to deposit the tax on purchase of goods made out of the state, the dealers deposited the tax and called it as ''purchase tax'' and then the scenario of Sales Tax changed into VAT, now will the dealer get the benefit of the purchase tax he/she has deposited under Sales Tax in VAT or not?