Hi,
My grandfather had purchased a land from Mr.X in year 1957 and continued paying taxes in Mr.X's name (as my grandfather was uneducated) till the year 1976 . When my father and his brothers wanted to partition the land among themselves they noticed the discrepancy in the ownership of the land, and they got it corrected in year 1976 by mutation via a court decree. And since 1976 till today the land is our possession, taxes are being paid by us, and the official RTC (i.e. record of rights) document also shows my father's and his brother's name.
But now in year 2011 the son of Mr.X has sent a court notice saying that the land is in his possession and he is cultivating it, and my father and his brothers have illegellay siphoned off land by fudging the records and RTC by a false court decree. And he now wants the RTC to be rectified to his name.
My questions are as follows,
1) Does this notice sent by son of Mr. X has any validity in the court of law?
2) Does it hold good considering the "Law of limitation"?
3) we he says the RTC has been updated by mutation via a false court decree. How can a court give a decree without veryfing the documents?
4) since we do not have any sale deed , etc that my grand father signed with Mr X, how do we proceed on this front legally?
Really appreciate your expert opinion on these.
Thanks,
Naari.
