mukesh gupta (advocate) 22 February 2012
A, the karta of the family has some self-acquired property. whether such property may be partitioned b/w him and his sons, irrespective of the fact that sons has no pre-existing right in the property? If yes, whether registration is required in light of the fact that new interest will create?
sridhar pasumarthy (ADVOCATE) 22 February 2012
Do you mean to say that blending of self acquired property into common hotchpot?
I think that in any way, it requires registration.
Even if partition deed is executed wrt joint family property after 1986, it must be by way of registered deed.
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