Hello All,
I had applied for a divorce on a medical basis and we were married for 3 years. A renowned psychiatrist has given a certificate that my wife has psychiatric issue and she need drug therapy and psychotherapy. My question is if I don't own any immovable assets (lands or house) and my dad has 1 house under his name, can my in-laws ask for a share of my dad's property to my son (2 years old) at the time of divorce? Thank you very much for your suggestions.