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Atul (HR manger)     02 March 2013

Regarding matrimonial relation


I want to ask a question regarding matrimonial relationship:
Is Sex without consent with wife is offense? I have heard under the IPC s*xual intercourse without consent is prohibited in recent news. Which section of IPC refers to this?

Need expert legal advice on this. Request to please clarify this.



Learning

 5 Replies

pankaj (Lawyer)     02 March 2013

It attracts the provisions of section 376 -A IPC, but only if they (husband and wife) are living in separation (under judicial separation) or being governed by some custom or usage.

Reformist !!! (Other)     02 March 2013

But buddy she i.e ur wife can charge u under DV act that u r forcing her for se*ual intercourse without her content.
Pls go through Domestic Voilence Act 2005.
She can charge u under that, and god know if marital rape gets included in 376, then only god can save men in this country.......Already, lots of dicussions r going on to include marital rape in 376 by feminists.

 

Nadeem Qureshi (Advocate/ nadeemqureshi1@gmail.com)     03 March 2013

Dear Atul

 

1[375. Rape.—A man is said to commit “rape” who, except in the case hereinafter excepted, has s*xual intercourse with a woman under circumstances falling under any of the six following de­scripttions:—

 

First.— Against her will.

 

Secondly.—Without her consent.

 

Thirdly.— With her consent, when her consent has been obtained by putting her or any person in whom she is interested in fear of death or of hurt.

 

Fourthly.—With her consent, when the man knows that he is not her husband, and that her consent is given because she believes that he is another man to whom she is or believes herself to be law­fully married.

 

Fifthly.— With her consent, when, at the time of giving such consent, by reason of unsoundness of mind or intoxication or the administration by him personally or through another of any stupe­fying or unwholesome substance, she is unable to understand the nature and consequences of that to which she gives consent.

 

Sixthly.— With or without her consent, when she is under sixteen years of age.

 

Explanation

 

Penetration is sufficient to constitute the s*xual intercourse necessary to the offence of rape.

 

Exception.—Sexual intercourse by a man with his own wife, the wife not being under fifteen years of age, is not rape.]

 

STATE AMENDMENT

 

Manipur

 

(a) in clause sixthly, for the word “sixteen” substitute the word “fourteen”; and

 

(b) in the Exception, for the word “fifteen” substitute the word “thirteen”.

 

[Vide Act 30 of 1950, sec. 3 (w.e.f. 16-4-1950) (made earlier than Act 43 of 1983)].

 

 

COMMENTS

 

Absence of injury on male organ of accused

 

Where a prosecutrix is a minor girl suffering from pain due to ruptured hymen and bleeding v**gina depicts same, minor contradictions in her statements they are not of much value, also absence of any injury on male organ of accused is no valid ground for innocence of accused, conviction under section 375 I.P.C. proper; Mohd. Zuber Noor Mohammed Changwadia v. State of Gujarat, 1999 Cr LJ 3419 (Guj).

 

Penetration

 

Mere absence of spermatozoa cannot cast a doubt on the correct­ness of the prosecution case; Prithi Chand v. State of Himachal Pradesh, (1989) Cr LJ 841: AIR 1989 SC 702.

 

 Feel Free to Call


(Guest)
Originally posted by : 498aweddinggift

But buddy she i.e ur wife can charge u under DV act that u r forcing her for se*ual intercourse without her content.
Pls go through Domestic Voilence Act 2005.
She can charge u under that, and god know if marital rape gets included in 376, then only god can save men in this country.......Already, lots of dicussions r going on to include marital rape in 376 by feminists.

 


Dont scare newbies, please.

Reformist !!! (Other)     05 March 2013

Rightly said helping hand.....apologies frm my side :)


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