Dears,
Does the spouse (read wife) automatically get rights on the property etc. belonging to a person (read husband) after his demise if there is no will?
For me this is the most logical even if the man has (few) children. Children should have the rights only when none of the parents are alive.
I am taking about the simple (simplest) case where the man and woman married only once and the children are their children. No second marriages, no step-children, ...
Thanks in advance for clarification.