Avi Kondamangal 11 June 2019
G.L.N. Prasad (Retired employee.) 12 June 2019
No. A self-acquired property by a person can be transferred to anyone legally and that person that received property is the absolute owner of the property.
You have in this post stated that it is his self-acquired property. In another post, you have stated that your father is also having ancestral property. Much depends on dates of such transaction, your age now and on the occupation of your father to earn such property on his own at that age without support from ancestral property. Contact local advocate inform facts and get guidance from him.
S.JEEVAGAN, Madurai. (Advocate, High court ) 12 June 2019
Avi Kondamangal 14 June 2019
Avi Kondamangal 14 June 2019
G.L.N. Prasad (Retired employee.) 14 June 2019
If it is a joint family, the person who claims such self-acquired property has the burden of proof to establish that without nucleus from the joint family, he had his own income through salary or some other source and property can be acquired through that salary or specialized skills but no part of ancestral property must be used for acquiring that property which he claims as self-acquired.
In the case of Doctors, advocates and other employees they have their own income through salary and most of them purchase properties and the housing loan installments may be deducted from salary etc., Because it is a joint family, there is no rule that coparcener should have no individual income through independent source and whatever property earned may not necessarily be joint family property.
SHARAD CHANDRA DANEJ (Asstt. Manager) 17 June 2019
The property acquired by your father from his father through partition is also a self acquired property.