members,
my great grandfather had some properties in his name. after his death the property was distributed among his 5 sons. the properties was never been partitioned.
my grandfather along with his other 3 sons moved to different city due to their job. only 1 son of my great grandfather was there in my home town.
now in 2010 that 1 son sold some properties showing himself as the only 1 legal heirs of my grandfather. but buyer did not able to take possession after that as he was in Jail due to some of his henious crime record and just got bail in April, 2022.
in 2016 myself again took possession over the properties. but recently in November 5 , I came to know that the properties were sold using fake deed in 2010 as mentioned above. the mutation of the properties happened in May , 2022 in favour of the buyer.
so now I want to know
1) Can I sue the buyer and the seller to declare the deed as void ab initio? the limitation period of 3 years is over , but is it possible that court can grant exemption in limitations under order 7, rule 6 with the reason that
due to work I was not there and again took possession in 2016?
2) since when the right to sue shall start for my case? let's say my grandfather died in 2010 , father in 2019.
Why the sale deed is fake? Please post material facts than adjectives.
Entry revenue records are not absolute as to title.
Cause of action commences from the date of knowledge of the allegedly fake deed.
