After husband's death can I have right on inlaws property
geetu
(Querist) 17 March 2016
This query is : Resolved
Dear sir, I got married in 2012 and in 2014 my husband passed away. He has done suicide. He has written a suicidal note in which he jas mentioned that I can take the keys from inlaws as he knows that they will not give me anything. Actually the electricity meter is on his name from last 15 yrs and the gouse is in lal lakir. Though he has mentioned that I have rights on that house but I have not asked for the keys. I thought relationship is more important. I have one son who is down syndrome baby . And he needs me these days I m not capable to do job as my health not allows. But now my inlaws has disconnected the meter and asked for new connection. They are in England. I m staying with my parents but as my parents are too old and now they are also not capable to feed me. I asked my father in law to help he refused. Now what to do. Is there any right . Or can I claim for share in there property. Or my son. What to do pls help.
kavksatyanarayana
(Expert) 17 March 2016
if the property is ancestral, then you and your son have right over the share of your late husband. settle the matter amicably. if not ripe, then file a suit for your shares of your husband by consulting a local lawyer who have knowledge in this type of cases.
Sudhir Kumar, Advocate
(Expert) 18 March 2016
nothing more can be advised based on existing facts.
If you were residing in the house then eletricity disconnection could have called for police intervention.
It is not clear where you were residing and who was residing the the said house.
P. Venu
(Expert) 18 March 2016
Please furnish the information sought.
atul
(Expert) 01 April 2016
What is ancestral property? Assuming that the property of your husband consisted of self acquisition process and some form his father in his name, the entire property is categorized as ancestral property.
You and your son have 1/2 rights equally on the same. No issue.
For a property to be called and categorized as ancestral property, it has to pass through 3 degree test without being divided in between. I am sure legal fraternity supports me in concluding that even part of ancestral property shall be called self acquired when family partition process disturbed the undivided nature of the property.
