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sridhar (Advocate)     31 July 2009

cancellation of sale deed

 A client of mine came up with a peculiar situation. He sold his two plots to a son and father respectively fourteen year ago. During the sale, both son and father did not give any amount of consideration to my client, but he was made to execute the sale deeds on their promise that they would pay him the money through a loan which they would obtain by mortgaging the same property which they were buying from him. My client kept one of the registered sale deeds with him and gave the other one to them and told them that he would hand over the remaining one once they pay him the money due to him for the transaction of sale.

Strangely, the son and father did not turn up with the money they were required to pay to my client even after numerous requests by my client. At the time of execution of sale deeds, my client did not take proper care to see that the document reflects true position regarding the consideration involved in the transaction. In both the documents, it was written as my client already received the full amount of consideration from the buyer.

Now after all these years, my client approached me. I am unable to decide whether my client can go for cancellation of Sale Deeds. Can somebody please suggest me the proper solution under these circumstances...??

 

 



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 5 Replies

A V Vishal (Advocate)     31 July 2009

No hope Sridhar, your client's silence for 14 yrs has completely destroyed the case, there is no option but to forego the amount and the land, since, in the query you have stated that the client has accepted that he has received the consideration, moreover, holding a sale deed of the vendee is of no use since the vendee can obtain a certified copy from the Registrar's office.

A V Vishal (Advocate)     31 July 2009

Further, your client has no rights to revoke the sale deed unilaterally.

V.V.RAMDAS (Advocate)     31 July 2009

Dear  Sridhar,

Your have not mentioned about the posession of the land . Whether delivery of posession of the land has been given to the purchaser or your pary is in posession of the land ?

Further I would like refresh your memory that- A sale will be completed if the following ingradients are fullfilled. 1) Thate must be a propery for sale.2) It must be registered,3) It must  be for some consideration, 4) It must follow with delivery of phisical  posession. If any of the ingradiants lacks - it cannot said that  it is valid sale.  So in your case if all the above noted ingredients are completed than you have nothing to do .

Raman ( )     01 August 2009

What if the client was illeterate or/and mentally ill at the time of Sale Deed?

Is it still a valid deed if it involved any/all of the following?





  1. coercion
  2. undue influence
  3. fraud
  4. misrepresentation
  5. mistake

sridhar (Advocate)     01 August 2009

 Thank you to all who have responded to my query.

yes, I would like to update the info on my question. The possession of both plots has not been delivered by my client to the son and father duo, both plots are still in my client's possession. I am not sure if this would help my client in any way. Can somebody please suggest me a way to go for cancellation of earlier Sale Deeds??


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