Thanks Mr Prasad and Mr Kishor. The seller, that is, XYZ, mentions that the land parcel is owned by ABC and that the license to develop is with him. However, ABC is not a signatory to the agreement. My understanding is that ABC is required under law to fulfil its obligations with respect to the conditions imposed on him by the licensing authority while granting the license. Secondly given that he is mentioned in the agreement isn't it implied that he is privy to the agreement? Also, since there has to be a commercial agreement between the landowner and the builder, the landowner also stands to beenfit by the consideration paid by me to the builder. Since he has indirectly benefited isn't he also obligated to ensure that the service is provided as agreed?