I am heading for a divorce but my husband does not own a property. Therefore, in order to get a house to live I wish to claim in my father's self acquired property. Though my father has already transferred the house in my brother's name few years ago, can I still claim in his property? As per the modern law if a married daughter does not have a house to live in she can claim in her father's property. My situation is even worse because I do own a house from either sides. So, in order to get an accomodation, can I claim and get a share in my father's property?
Please guide me.