Is property shared equally if not mentioned in sale deed?

I read the draft of sale-deed of an apartment to be purchased jointly by a husband his wife from a promoter. I noticed that it is not specifically mentioned that they will own 50% of the property each (it had only been mentioned that they are purchasing the entire property with other details). My question is, if it is not clearly mentioned that they each will own 50% of the property, is it automatically implied or will the sale-deed be treated incomplete in this respect. Can problem arise due to this in future? (The couple had taken joint home-loan from a bank to purchase the property) Thanks.