Hi Sir/Madam,
My mother (party Y) bought a Revenue site on date 11/7/1985 through a GPA sale deed through a owner (party X) who had a self acquired property from the year 1952. He has clearly mentioned in the titles that their property can be developed, sold or leased according to the wish of party Y and there shall be no any of the legal hairs who will have any rights over the property whatsoever and party Y shall be the absolute owner.
Subsequently after 12 yrs ie date 8/9/1997 there will be a sale deed executed to party Z(son of party Y) and registered . party Z has duly filled all the tax payments (from BBMP limits since 1995), got the khatha in his name, paid the developmental fees, got the Khatha A and the PID no., and all the tax upto date. Its been over 17 years and he is enjoying the property without any claims and worries whatsoever.
Now party Z being the absolute owner is planning to do a Joint Development (construction of 12 to 15 flats) with a builder on some agreeable sharing basis.
1. Is the documents that I have sufficient for me to enter into a legal agreement with the builder.
2.The builder might or might not take loan for the building purpose, but IF in case the JV begins and it has to be sold to customers after completion of construction of flats; will the customers get the home loans easily (a) based on the documents available (b) is there any in-sufficiency for the end customer to avail home loan ?
3. Now I want to know if it all Loans will be granted for construction purpose for the builder, ( should party Z also take the loan in his name and share the load along with builder).
Please also mention any other relevant details if i have missed out in the queries.
Thanks
Bharath Kumar