Abhi singh
12 May 2014 at 06:53
Dear experts,
My name is Abhi singh. I have problem that my all joint faimly property belongs in the name of "my father's uncle & his son". My joint faimly is devided in 1980 by orally. There was no evidence of deviding. And nothing was given to my father. My father was nothing do that time. Now I want to revoke my share. So what should I do ?? If I go to court than how many chances that judgement will be in my favour ?? And how much time take ?? Please suggest me with all related Act, provision & also relevent section.. I again repeated that all property is jointly purchased. & property is in the name of "my father's uncle & his son".... thanks.
shyam
27 April 2014 at 16:30
sir/madam how to prove in Trade mark registry,when the word is generic.
1. will the name of the rivers,common names etc, considered as a valid proof?
2. if the details of name is in Wikipedia can it be shown in trade mark registry as a proof, is it a valid proof to show the word is generic ?
3. if the name existing from olden days, how to prove it, as a generic name ?
4. if there is a shlok on the name can we use it as a proof, to show the word is generic. ?
sir/madam please suggest me.
YOGESH AKULWAR
26 April 2014 at 14:36
Dear Sir,
My father has expired in 2001 and at his working time he purchase a plot. He has First wife who died after marriage of 4 year and then after he married with my mother. First wife has one son but he has no concern with us from his birth. Plot is still in the name of my father and nobody except my mother know about this plot. Now i want to ask ...
1) should I have write to sell this plot without permission of any one?
2) Is there is problem in Transfer to my mother's name?
3) can in feature first wife's son claim on this plot?
4) Should I transfer/sell to another person .
Please help me to take decision.
P.C. Joshi
24 April 2014 at 17:19
Dear Friends,
I want to know whether a trade mark( say L) has been registered under a class forthe particular products.If I want to apply for the same trade mark and in the same class but for a different products. Can I legally do that. In my view yes. Because the trade marks are alwatys granted in respect of certain goods not for whole class.
Can anyone one please throw siome light on this issue.
Thanks
P.C. Joshi
ANIL KUMAR KAUSHIK
15 April 2014 at 15:29
one agriculture land has been purchased by name of Mr X Through CMD of a public Trust. land is sold by teanant by personal name having desination of CMD of a public trust. 90 A, application for conversion the land for institutional use is not submitted. what is the period of application submission .Kindly advice for the same
sudhakar
15 April 2014 at 13:37
Hello sir
My father in law had gifted a property in the year 2011 to his elder daughter ( total 3 daughters, my wife is elder). This property he had bought it from a cooperative socitey and got registered in his name in the year 2006.
Later in the year 2014 society had recalled the original alloty to get it rectification deed due to plan approval change, and got it done in jan 2014.
Present
1.is it necessary to get rectification deed from her father. Or our old gift deed wil reflect the recent rectification done by society to my father in law.
2.is it necessary to get a ratification from her sisters.
3.is it was possible to get a rectification from society directly to my wife . (Because father was gifted in 2011)
Plz advice
Thanks in advance
Dr A Roy
14 April 2014 at 11:54
I want to run online research journal
1. How to register its name.
2. How can I get its ISSN number?
Regards.
ANIL KUMAR KAUSHIK
14 April 2014 at 10:43
One agriculture land purchased by name of public trustin the year of 2006. 90 a conversion for institutional use is not applied till today, only possession and wire boundary has been completed. Is there any time limit for conversion ? 90 A application please confirm ,if yes, what is the period.
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Legal issues
My friend's father bought an industrial plot jointly with his brother's wife. Brother's wife gave the GPA to her brother-in-law who sold the the property to a third party around 30 years ago but the property was not registered in favor of that party. Third party is no more there and the title stands in favor of my friend's dad and his brother's wife. My question is to whom does the property belong legally. The legal heirs of the third party are insisting on a transfer deed to be executed by my friend's dad. But he told that he has already given a sum of money for registration of the property and it was not used for registrations. Is he eligible for any compensation for that amount? Is it safe to transfer the title in favor of the legal heirs again?