shyam
25 February 2010 at 12:45
Dear Experts,
please tell me the difference between ancestral and self acquired properties.please also tell me the acts and sections under which they are defined.
Viki Lingeria
25 February 2010 at 00:27
Hello,
My mother passed away in 2008. My current home is in my name & my mother's name. I also have a housing loan running for this home since 2005. For the loan, I am the borrower & my mother is the co-borrower.
I would like to know how can I get my mother's name joint ownership replaced with my father's name in the home property. What formalities I need to complete with housing loan bank and my society.
I also have a married sister. Do I need to complete any formalities with her.
Waiting for a reply.
Sameer Zodgekar
24 February 2010 at 21:13
I have a flat in Pune purchased in 2004. I occupy it. Now, I intend to sell it. Our cooperative housing society members are not giving any documents, despite giving a request to do so. They hold that I should first pay transfer fee, then foreclose the loan, show that letter to society and then get an NOC. The buyer is frankly disbelieving. How can a buyer foreclose my outstanding loan of bank without any document photocopies like Index-2, Sale deed, Commencement certificate and importantly, an NOC? Previous sale deed is with society; members have only share certificate. What is the law? What can I do? The society is even refusing to issue me a no-dues certificate despite I having paid all the fees, like maintenance and other. Regards. Sameer
sandip c
24 February 2010 at 16:11
My father died without making any will.He has one plot in his name which he had given for development to buillder in 1993.Builder has given our share in the constructed building.
Building has been registerd later but no conveyance done yet. Is it necessary to trasnfer lagal heirs names in 7/12 extract as my father died. Can it be done by transfering land in society's name when conveyance is done directly without transfering it on legal heirs names.PLEASE SUGGEST.
saara
24 February 2010 at 13:47
Can Hindu father exclude his one son from his property?
and what is the procedure for that if possible.
Deepak Gupta
24 February 2010 at 12:04
My father was alloted a DDA flat in Delhi. He died several years back and now the property has been transferred by DDA in my name. I wanted to convert is from leasehold to free-hold but the possession letter and lease papers of the flat are not traceable now. What is the process for getting the copies of these documents and then convert the flat to free-hold.
Deepak Gupta
DILIP SHAH
24 February 2010 at 10:52
Dear Sir,
Re: NON ISSUANCE OF LETTER OF NEITHER ALLOTMENT OF FLAT NOR EXECUTION OF AGREEMENT OF SALE AND TRANSFER TILL DATE
I had paid full purchase price of flat to the Builder for purchase of flat in Mumbai in the month of July, 2009.
The construction work is going on in full swing and is completed almost 50%. The expected month of possession is said to be in Dec. 2010.
The Builder has not yet issued any Letter of Allotment to the effect of purchase of a specific flat nor is Agreement for Sale and Transfer executed.
I had sent many emails to him for the Specific Performance but no response till date. However, I am holding all the Payment Receipts for the amounts paid.
I am at a loss to know as to what are the remedial measures available without approaching the Court of Law as I cannot afford the legal expenses.
I am clinically ill and retired senior citizen aged 65 years with lot many responsibilities to shoulder.
Is there any provision in MOFA Act that if I have paid 20 % of the cost of flat, the Builder is supposed to execute the Agreement for Sale and Transfer instantly? In my case, I have already paid full purchase price of my flat.
Your guidance will go a long way as I am staying in a rented house at present with my family with a disturbed monthly domestic budget.
Sir, I await your reply,
Sincerely yours,
Dilip Shah
priya
24 February 2010 at 01:24
i want to discuss regarding sale of our joint property got by inheritance after my father's dead.the legal successors are my mother my brother( aged 15+yr) and me.we have 3 vacant shop.for my mothers treatment our study expenses & others we had made an agreement with a party to sale one shop and have taken an amount of money as advance without registration.on that agreement three of us have signed. but at the time of registry we have come to know that my brother can not sign & we have no right to sale his share without court permission. now how can i proceed to get that permission, what is the procedure & how long it will take? can the court reject my appeal?if we desired can we legally cancel that agreement as my brother have also signed it?whether the party can take any legal step if we want to cancel it and return their money ? please help me as soon as possible by giving your advise. we are in big trouble.
Anonymous
23 February 2010 at 21:05
Sir, My father sold my grandfather's(his father) properties when we were young and invested the proceeds into his business. After some years he bought a property. Me and my brother are the only legal heirs in succession. My brother has one son and I have two sons. My question is; 1)How the property should be divided now 2)Is there any precedence of this sort in case laws and if so, details may please be given
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Jurisdiction of Courts
Dear Experts ,
Please inform the various courts/fora where property disputes can be litigated alongwith the financial limits of these fora , if any .