Sumit Shingala
06 May 2008 at 10:05
Respected Dear Sir(s),
We hv following query. We request your Valuable review on this.
The assessee is paying service tax on goods transportation by road freight....as a service receipient.
The assessee has availed credit of ST paid by it on Advertisement Exp. and have utilised the same for paying service tax on freight, payable by it as a receipient of service.
The assessee has done so upto 1st March, 2008, under bona fide assumption that, it is a "deemed service provider" and therefore can take credit and utilise the same for payment of service tax on frieght.
Sir, Will u please guide us as to
1. Whether such a credit can be availed and utilised by the Service Receiptient for Payment of Service Tax on Freight ?
2. Which are the sections/provisions/rules under which the assessee is eligible OR not eligible to availe and utilise such credit ?
Thanking You.
Awaiting a reply.
vijaykumar vyas
06 May 2008 at 00:45
I would like to know whether TDS applicable on lease payment by company to the owner of agricultural land for agricultural operations. Thanks in advance.
Rajesh Thakker
25 April 2008 at 11:10
Sec. 29 of the Advocate Act, 1961 is as under:
"Advocates to be the only recognized class of persons entitled to practice law.:-
Subject to the provisions of this Act and any rules made thereunder, there shall, as from the appointed day, be only one class of persons entitled to practice the profession of law, namely, advocates."
The duty of CA is for auditing of accounts only. Eventhough, sec. 288 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 has allow CA class to represent of assessee before the Income-tax authorities including Hon'ble Income-tax Tribunal.
Is it not a breach of sec. 29 of the Advocate Act, 1961?
SACHIN
24 April 2008 at 17:18
What is the exact law of the LTA? How to claim? Who can claim? How many times? What are the expenses? Please give a complete knowledge of the same.
mani
24 April 2008 at 09:01
A Director of a company, which was running under loss for past 8 years, had not claimed his salary and no provision has been made in the books as salary payable at all for last 8 years. Now the company has revived and started showing profits. Can he claim his salary in arrears for the last 8 years and what is the impact in company books and the personal taxation of the director ?
Rumy
21 April 2008 at 16:05
Dear All,
Hope you all are doing well.
I have a query regarding "Fringe Benefit Tax".
There is a component in my salary which is "Medical Allowance". For which I submit my bills to the employer.
My employer is deducting tax under the head FBT.
My query is, Am I liable to pay FBT from my pocket or is my employer liable and he is illegally deducting my tax.
Please enlighthen me on this.
Regards,
Baseer Qidwai
bm
17 April 2008 at 11:20
Respected sir/ madam
please help me in professional tax filing based on the pin code or ward
please give me the information about ward wise fileing address
like income tax
thanks
Manish
17 April 2008 at 01:59
An individual is having two sources of income- A and B. (A) is specified profession where gross receipts >1.50 Lakh and he is required to maintain books of a/cs. (B) is retail trade u/s 44AF and so not required to maintain books of a/c.
My Qn is: How should he fill up the "Part A-P&L" in ITR4.
Option I: Should he fill up item 1 to 50 for (A) and 51 for business (B) ? (but subsequent "Schedule BP" reads in col. A.1 "Item 43 OR (not and) item 51d of Part A-P&L".
Option II: he should sum up the figures of Profession (A) with the parameters of business (B) as required in 51a to 51d and mention in items 1 to 50.
Can’t in Option II the AO may ask to produce books for business (B) also on the plea that “you have filled the items as if books are maintained”.
Same is the confusion with regard to PartA-BS.
Please Guide.
sanjay_deys
11 April 2008 at 18:10
Hi,
We have not created any Gratuity fund or trust for gratuity. If we simply pau the insurance premium for gratuity, can we get the deduction of premium paid for Income tax.
Please give your advice.
Regards
Sanjay
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tv channel buys movie rights
Suppose that there's a tv channel which buys the right to telecast a movie say twice in a year for three years and pays the entire amount in the first yer say Rs. 3,00,000....
Will this entire amount be allowed in the year of payment if the tv channel follows accrual system of accounting???
Kindly support will relevant sections & case studies...