Moulder
05 June 2013 at 11:14
Dear Experts,
I am planning to open up a new shop really soon in a new developing location. I am thinking up of running a promotional campaign through local newspapers, online etc.,. so my shop will have buyers from day 1.
I am thinking of running up a contest where every interested customer will have to pay a Rs. 50/- to enter the contest and after one month 3 of the lucky winners will get the prized items and rest of the customers will get their 100% money back in the form of coupons, which they can redeem at my shop for their future purchases.
Someone has told me about "The Prize, Chits & Money Circulation Scheme (Banning) Act, 1978", so I would just like to know that whether I can do this or not? I mean I don't find anything illegal in this as I am just searching buyers and so returning their 100% money back to them..Please help!
Moulder
04 June 2013 at 13:39
Dear Experts,
I am planning to open up a new shop really soon in a new developing location. I am thinking up of running a promotional campaign through local newspapers, online etc.,. so my shop will have buyers from day 1.
I am thinking of running up a contest where every interested customer will have to pay a Rs. 50/- to enter the contest and after one month 3 of the lucky winners will get the prized items and rest of the customers will get their 100% money back in the form of coupons, which they can redeem at my shop for their future purchases.
Someone has told me about "The Prize, Chits & Money Circulation Scheme (Banning) Act, 1978", so I would just like to know that whether I can do this or not? I mean I dont find anything illegal in this as I am just searching buyers and so returning their 100% money back to them..Please help!
Moulder
13 April 2013 at 14:06
There is an land in the state of RAJASTHAN that is being purchased by an employee of development board about 40 years ago on concessional rates. The said house is under 100% possession of the owner. There is a clause in the "patta", that says "this land is being sold on concessional rates, so it cannot be sold or rented out without the permission of the government and can only be used for residential purposes."
1.Can this clause be removed?
2. If yes, then do the land owner have to pay the price difference as according to the date the land was purchased or the rate as per today?
Thanks in advance for replying.
Moulder
12 April 2013 at 17:22
My grandfather has written a will, in late 1950 Rajasthan, in his own handwriting and signatures, absolutely in legal language (as far as I know), but could not get it witnessed as he was in the hospital. He has very clearly defined each and everything that is being related to his properties, cash, his physical health etc.,. All the things are done in the past as per his will as we all know that they were the last wishes of him, but now as the time has passed, few of his daughters are claiming the right on the only left property, that he wanted to give to his two son's, where they live along with the grandmother, took very good care of her all these years. Even grandmother want that the will of her husband should be maintained. This is unjustified and they also know that their father has written this and given a copy of this to everyone mentioned then only, but they now say that the will is not legal as it is not witnessed!, And people say Sons don't care!:-)
1. Kindly, let me know if this WILL is accepted by the court of law, in-case they claim it legally now?
2. If not, then please suggest us a way, so we can execute his last wishes.
(Every page of the handwritten will is signed by the Grandfather)
Thanks for your precious time.
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Handwritten (holographic) will without witnesses
We all know that as per the law the Handwritten Will has to be signed by the 2 testing witnesses.
But again the question arises that if a person in his full senses has written a will in his own handwriting (signed every page) and also mentioned that "if anything as per law, I am unable to fulfill, I apologize!...." and also gave valid reasons for it (reasons that can be proved, handwriting, intention can be proved as they were Real and Valid).
Can't this Will be taken as a ground proof for the beneficiaries to claim their rights (as per the wishes of the deceased) ? Does court only strictly follows the statutory compliance defined and not the intent of the deceased?
Is there is any scope for a learned lawyer be able to fight the case on this very ground?
Please advice! and Thank you in advance for your time.