Conditional transfer is valid or not

RDV PRASAD (Querist) 22 January 2012 This query is : Resolved
(F) Father transferred the property to his son(s) on a condition that he will pay sum annual income to daughter (D) , in future if S want to sell the property he should make some means to fulfill the annual income for the D. But , S without compiling the obligation transferred the property in favor of 'X' (third party) , now D wants to Sue X in this regard .

D is plaintiff

X is respondent

what are the remedies available for D as well as for the X also

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Advocate. Arunagiri (Expert) 22 January 2012
Without seeing the actual wordings in the deed, I can not give my opinion.

Sailesh Kumar Shah (Expert) 22 January 2012
Transfer of property by which mode?
if you post contents of that document, further opinion could be given.

Raj Kumar Makkad (Expert) 22 January 2012
Mode of transfer is not important. The matter under consideration is that son failed to fulfil the undertaking/precondition to the transfer in his favour so daughter has every right to get the setting aside of such transfer by filing a civil suit.

prabhakar singh (Expert) 22 January 2012
Yet it would be dangerous to express view without such fashioned deed.

M/s. Y-not legal services (Expert) 23 January 2012
yes., whats the deed? and directly d cant sue against x. she can sue against s., she can add x also as one of the party.

but you need to give full details about your query..

-tom-

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