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Title of property

(Querist) 18 November 2011 This query is : Resolved 
hello experts..
if a person buys land from government, what rights he possess on the land? how he should acquir the right on that land? what about the previous deeds and possession rights..whether he can mortgage the property which he has purchased from government.?

plz clarify...
Devajyoti Barman (Expert) 18 November 2011
If it is an absolute sale without any rider like bar on transfer for next few years, the buyer can do anything with this including mortgaging it.
Rajeev Kumar (Expert) 18 November 2011
Mr.Barman is right
Kiran Kumar (Expert) 18 November 2011
rightly advised by Mr. Barman...once the sale becomes absolute the previous ownership is of no consequence to the buyer.

if the sale is conditional then the right to mortgage may not exist.
Kirti Kar Tripathi (Expert) 18 November 2011
Agree with experts.
Shonee Kapoor (Expert) 19 November 2011
No reason to differ, however if land is given on benevolence, then there can be many riders.

Regards,

Shonee Kapoor
harassed.by.498a@gmail.com
Shashikant V. Patil (Expert) 19 November 2011
If previous deeds of the said land available, then go through the contents of transfer and sale for your satisfaction.
Piyush Vaishnava (Expert) 20 November 2011
i do agree with experts.
prabhakar singh (Expert) 21 November 2011
agree with experts
Sailesh Kumar Shah (Expert) 23 November 2011
I also agree with experts.


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