Querist :
Anonymous
(Querist) 15 August 2011
This query is : Resolved
My grandmother had bought a property in 1973 with five other partners. The said property was later managed by a partnership firm having all these as partners. Now one of the partners has sold the said property to his own sons without the consent of my grandmother. In the sale deed they have mentioned that partner X duly authorised to execute this deed vide resolution no. and so on. Can he sell on basis of resolution. Also when we asked them, they are saying that they have a NOTARY POA made in the year 1993. My grandmom does not remember if she gave the POA and moreover it was given only to manage the lands on behalf of the firm. He has also not mentioned the POA in the Sale deed to his sons. Now what will my legal standing be. Please Help !!
R.Ramachandran
(Expert) 15 August 2011
It is not possible to give any view without completely examining all the facts and attended documents.
Querist :
Anonymous
(Querist) 15 August 2011
T can you please tell me if sale by resolution is possible. Also please tell me what is the value of a POA given only on notary, not registered in sub registrar.
Sailesh Kumar Shah
(Expert) 16 August 2011
Please check partnership deed that it give power to any partner to sale property. Second, sale of property through Notary POA no validity.
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