anilkumar
(Querist) 03 January 2021
This query is : Resolved
Actual sale of the property made in 1980. But no deed registered that time. Now deed is registering for the fair value without any money transfer. What would be the consequences in doing so.
Guest
(Expert) 03 January 2021
The Documents would be Legally Acceptable.
Advocate Bhartesh goyal
(Expert) 03 January 2021
Yes, Sub registrar has to register sale deed irrespective of fact that transaction/deal was happened 30 years ago but stamp duty and registration charges has to be paid on as per prevailing circle rate.
kavksatyanarayana
(Expert) 03 January 2021
You stated that a sale deed is actually made in the year 1980 but no registration was done at that time. Why all this long period kept silent? Are the original seller and buyer available? Your query is no clarity. However, now the seller can execute the sale deed in favour of the buyer and the value of the property as per Market Value prevailing as on the date of presentation of the document
You can register the sale deed by paying stamp duty and registration charges as per today's market value.
P. Venu
(Expert) 04 January 2021
Has the change in possession recorded in revenue records and mutation effected?
Guest
(Expert) 04 January 2021
Only after Registration of Documents the Name Transfers and Changes in Govt Records would happen Legally
Dr J C Vashista
(Expert) 05 January 2021
Mention the fact in Sale Deed, which has to be registered even after 30 years of physical sale and handing over possession.
Rajendra K Goyal
(Expert) 05 January 2021
Agree with the advice from expert Advocate Bhartesh goyal.
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