RIGHT TO DIE

THANKS UMA JI.

YOU GOT THE POINT.

RIGHT TO DIE DOES NOT MEAN THAT IT IS A SEAS OFF THE RIGHT TO LIVE.

BOTH THE RIGHTS ARE SEPETRATE AND CAN BE DISTINGUISHED SEPERATELY.

RIGHT TO DIE INDICATES THAT

WHEN A PERSON WILL THINK THAT HE HAS DONE ALL HIS ETARNAL WORK, ACCORDING TO HER CAPACITY, AND HE NEED NOT TO LIVE MORE, HE MAY APPLY THIS RIGHT TO DIE, WITH THE HELP OF MEDICAL PRACTITIONER FOR THE PURPOSE OF A PAINLESS DEATH.

TODAY'S SUCIDE CAN NOT BE COMPARED WITH THIS GRACEFULL DEATH.

SUCIDE IS NOTHING BUT A THEFT. KEEPING EVERYONE IN DARK, HE FLY AWAY.

APPLYING RIGHT TO DIE WILL BE  GRACEFULL. THE PERSON IN QUESTION SFALL HAVE OBTAIN THE PERMISSION FROM THE AUTHORITY BY WHICH NO ACTION WILL BE TAKEN AGAINST THE DOCTORS AND THE PERSONS PRESENT TO HELP & EXECUTE THE RIGHT TO DIE.

RIGHT TO DIE...........

you can do it,

but why propoganda before die?

that mean YOU ARE  anouncing the dath!

and it is not accepted now a days.

why r you want to become popular after dath without hard work!

FIRSTLY READ THE PREVIOUS POSTINGS ONE AFTER ONE, OTHERWISE WOULD NOT BE ABLE TO UNDERSTAND THE  MATTER.

RIGHT TO DIE DOES NOT MEAN COMMITTING SUCIDE.

Hello All,

Please go through the judgments given by the Hon'ble Supreme Court in the caes of P.Rathinam vs Union of India and Smt. Gian Kaur vs State of Punjab cases.

While in Rathinam's case, Supreme Court ruled that IPC 306 is an unconstitutional provision for it violates the rights of an individual. The basis of an argument is like this. If a person has right to speech, he also has the right to remain silent. If a person has right to get educated, he also implicitly has the right to remain illiterate. Similarly if a person has the right to live, he implicitly has the right not to live.

If a person has right to get educated, he also implicitly has the right to remain illiterate. Similarly if a person has the right to live, he implicitly has the right not to live.

----    yes exactly.