The new IRBM etc is making things very confusing. Have a few queries. Look forward to the replies
1.) They say wife has a 50% share in all husbands property....This means???
a) When exactly is she entitled to 50% of the husbands property? - after husbands death as an inhertance or as a right even in a divorce filing. (is it an inheritance entitlement or maintenance)
b) If wife is a working woman and a divorcee before marriage, (i.e. she has remarried) can she claim 50% of her first husbands property and also is automatically is entitled to 50% of second husbands property as maintenance too?
c) So if a woman is entitled to 50% of property of all her husbands and of course she has a right to inherit the proportionate share in her fathers property as a daughter, wow what a tremendous "birth right" business asset it would be to be born female in India!!!! Obviously there is a flaw in this logic above. But can some one help where?
