Querist :
Anonymous
(Querist) 14 March 2021
This query is : Resolved
I have claimed equal portion in ancestral property which is 4 acres, earned by my grand father.
My father (dead) has earned 2 acres of property in his life time and has sales deed in his name.
Now my 2 uncles and their sons are arguing that there is no self acquired property. It was earned from the income from above said ancestral property and denying any share in 4 acres.
Does sale deed made in my father's name remain void in any case (If I don't have any proof for income earned from my father) ?
How do I prove that it is self acquired property ?
You can show that the property owned by your father is from his own income. Let them file suit and based on their allegation you have to put up your defense.
Advocate Bhartesh goyal
(Expert) 14 March 2021
You need not to prove that land which is on your father's name was purchased by your. father from his earnings.It is presumed that land belongs to your father is your father's self acquired property unless contrary is proved by other claimants.
kavksatyanarayana
(Expert) 15 March 2021
As the property is in your father's name it is his self acquired property. so after him, his wife and children will have equal rights over the property.
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