Dear All,
If I sell a house property which i have recieved as a gift from my brothers wife, will I have to pay capital gains tax?
In this case, what would be my purchase price for the property to compute the capital gain?
Rajesh (properitor) 26 March 2010
Dear All,
If I sell a house property which i have recieved as a gift from my brothers wife, will I have to pay capital gains tax?
In this case, what would be my purchase price for the property to compute the capital gain?
Vineet (Director) 27 March 2010
Yes, capital gain shall be levied in your hand. The purchase price shall be the same as it was in the hands of donor.
Rajesh (properitor) 28 March 2010
Dear Vineetji,
The donor (i.e my bhabhi) has inherited the property on the event of death of my brother.
My brother bought the plot of land in 1979 and he constructed the ground floor in 1982
He constructed first floor in 1998.
Thanks a ton!
Sivadas Chettur (Chartered accountant) 28 March 2010
The cost shall be taken as the cost to the previous owner. Please see Sec 49 which provides like this....
(1)] Where the capital asset became the property of the assessee, under a gift or will then the cost of acquisition of the asset shall be deemed to be the cost for which the previous owner of the property acquired it, as increased by the cost of any improvement of the assets incurred or borne by the previous owner or the assessee, as the case may be.
siva208@yahoo.com
Vineet (Director) 30 March 2010
I hope you got the answer. For you the cost shall be cost of land valued as on 1-4-1981 and subsequent expenditure incurred for construction in 1982 and 1998.
Rahul (abc) 16 May 2010
Mr. Vineet & Sivadas,
Let me just add a point here. Pls refer sec 49 which states that in the event of a gift or a will or inheritance, cost shall be the cost to the previous owner. The previous owner here means the person who acquired the asset by means OTHER THAN u/s 49.
Vineet (Director) 16 May 2010
Thanks Mr Rahul
If you read the explanation to section 49(1) more precisely, it says that In this sub-section the expression “previous owner of the property” in relation to any capital asset owned by an assessee means the last previous owner of the capital asset who acquired it by a mode of acquisition other than that referred to in clause (i) or clause (ii) or clause (iii) or clause (iv) of this sub-section.
In the present case the last previous owner who acquired the property other than by any mode u/s 49(1) was the deceased brother. That is why if you kindly notice my reply, I have mentioned the cost of acquisition as if the the cost was in hand of deceased brother.
Harsh (Manager) 27 May 2013
@all
Cost part is clear.
can you confirm the date of acquisition (for Donee) is the same as date of acquisition of the Donor here?
Meaning, the Donee will incur LONG TERM capitalgain tax and not short term?
thanks