Dear Experts,
A flat in Pune , on sale , by original owner. Property was developed by a developer through a development agreement with original owner the clause of which state that the developer is entiteled to sell flats after giving ownership flats to original owner.Only those flats can be sold which are not given to owner.The agreement does not mention about an absolute irrevocable power of attorney given to developer
My seller , the original owner ,now does require to have a sale deed ?
Please advice.
Thank you